CFA Practice Question

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CFA Practice Question

Which one of the following statements is false with regard to debt covenants?

A. The term "technical default" is used to describe a situation where the debtor has violated one or more covenants in a loan agreement but continues to make all payments on a timely basis.
B. Negative covenants (e.g., not permitted to pay out annual dividends in excess of 30% of net earnings) tend to play a less significant role in loan agreements than do affirmative covenants.
C. A creditor (lender) would prefer a higher fixed-charge coverage ratio in comparison to a lower value.
D. Maintaining adequate insurance on assets serving as collateral in loan agreements is an example of an affirmative covenant.
Correct Answer: B

Negative covenants place direct restrictions on management actions and thus play a more significant role than affirmative covenants in loan agreements.

User Contributed Comments 4

User Comment
awoption Negative covenants place direct restrictions on management actions and thus play a more significant role than affirmative covenants in loan agreements
Toni - Def Technical Default
- Affirmative Covenants
- Negative Covenets more significant than affirmative because place restrictions
kofi def. B cos no where does it give specifics abt loans.
Shalva There is no evidence whether are negative covenants more important or not. Also, I don't think that these types of covenanats are comparable at all. But answ. B is true, because there is also no evidence to the contrary
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