- CFA Exams
- CFA Level I Exam
- Topic 7. Derivatives
- Learning Module 32. Valuation of Contingent Claims
- Subject 5. Black Option Valuation Model
CFA Practice Question
Consider a European receiver swaption that expires in two years and is on a one-year swap that will make quarterly payments. The swaption has an exercise rate of 6.5%. The notional principal is $100 million. At expiration, the term structure of interest rates is as follows:
L0(90) = 0.0373; L0(180) = 0.0429; L0(270) = 0.0477; L0(360) = 0.0538.
What is the market value of the swaption at expiration?
Correct Answer: $1,184,681
B0(90) = 1 / (1 + 0.0373 (90/360)) = 0.9908
B0(180) = 1 / (1 + 0.0429 (180/360)) = 0.9790
B0(270) = 1 / (1 + 0.0477 (270/360)) = 0.9655
B0(360) = 1 / (1 + 0.0538 (360/360)) = 0.9489
First we compute the present value discount factors:
B0(90) = 1 / (1 + 0.0373 (90/360)) = 0.9908
B0(180) = 1 / (1 + 0.0429 (180/360)) = 0.9790
B0(270) = 1 / (1 + 0.0477 (270/360)) = 0.9655
B0(360) = 1 / (1 + 0.0538 (360/360)) = 0.9489
The fixed rate should be: 1/(90/360) x (1 - 0.9489) / (0.9908 + 0.9790 + 0.9655 + 0.9489) = 0.0528.
The market value at expiration of the receiver swaption is Max {0, [0.065 x (90/360) - 0.0528 x (90/360)] x (0.9908 + 0.9790 + 0.9655 + 0.9489)} = 0.01184681.
Based on notional principal of $100 million, the market value is $100,000,000 x 0.01184681 = $1,184,681.
User Contributed Comments 0
You need to log in first to add your comment.