- CFA Exams
- CFA Level I Exam
- Topic 1. Quantitative Methods
- Learning Module 2. Time Value of Money in Finance
- Subject 3. Equity Instruments and the Time Value of Money
CFA Practice Question
A share of preferred stock pays a specific dividend on a specific schedule for as long as the issuing company exists. Assume that a share of preferred stock pays an annual per-share dividend at the end of each year. The present value of this share of preferred stock is $75.62. Assume that the company paying the dividends will exist forever. If the dividends can be invested at 4% per year, what is the amount of each dividend?
B. $78.64
C. infinite
A. $3.02
B. $78.64
C. infinite
Correct Answer: A
A = (PV)(r) = (75.62)(0.04) = 3.02
User Contributed Comments 5
User | Comment |
---|---|
LondonBoy | Remember to think of the dividend as a payment!. Divdend / r = PV |
Amrokken | Just looking at the figures...no need for calculation |
cschulz316 | The figures on the actual exam won't be so easy to distinguish. That's why these are "BASIC" questions. Learn to calculate |
denisw123 | what does the rate at which a dividend can be reinvested have to do with the size of the dividend itself? These are two separate transactions, no? Maybe the dividend only yields 2% so the shareholder reinvests it somewhere else for 4%. They may be holding this stock as a growth stock that offers a small dividend, not exclusively for the dividend itself. |
gtokarz | This question was worded poorly but I guess that was the trick. Sure the dividend can be invested at 4% a year but it simply asks for the amount so it's a simple calc. |