Assumptions of the Black-Scholes-Merton Model:_{0} N(d_{1}) - X e ^{-rcT } N(d_{2})

p = X e^{-rc T} [1 - N(d_{2})] - S_{0}[1 - N(d_{1})]

d_{1} = {ln(S_{0}/X) + [r^{c} + (σ^{2}/2)] T} / [σ (T^{1/2})].

d_{2} = d_{1} - σ (T^{1/2}).

σ = the annualized standard deviation of the continuously compounded return on the stock.

r^{c} = the continuously compounded risk-free rate of return.

N(.) = cumulative normal distribution function._{1} and d_{2} as follows:

d_{1} = [ln(100/100) + (0.06 + (0.1^{2}/2) 1) / (0.1 1^{1/2}) = 0.65.

d_{2} = 0.65 - 0.1 x 1^{1/2} = 0.55._{1} and d_{2}. These values are the probability that a normally distributed variable with a zero mean and a standard deviation of 1.0 will have a value equal to or less than the d_{1} or d_{2} term we are considering. Below is the relevant part of the cumulative probabilities table for a standard normal distribution._{1}) = N(0.65) = 0.7422. Similarly, N(d_{2}) = N(0.55) = 0.7088. We now have:

c = $100 x 0.7422 - $100 x e^{-0.06 x 1} x 0.7088 = $7.46.

p = $100 x e^{-0.06 x 1} x (1 - 0.7088) - $100 x (1 - 0.7422) = $1.64.__Inputs to the Black-Scholes-Merton model__

*The underlying price follows a lognormal probability distribution as it evolves through time.**Interest rates remain constant and known.**The volatility of the underlying asset is known and constant.**No transaction costs or taxes.**No cash flows on the underlying.**European exercise terms are used.*

The Black-Scholes-Merton formulas for the prices of call and put options are:

c = S

p = X e

where:

d

d

σ = the annualized standard deviation of the continuously compounded return on the stock.

r

N(.) = cumulative normal distribution function.

Assume that a stock trades at $100 and the continuously compounding risk-free interest rate is 6%. A call option on the stock has an exercise price of $100 and expires in one year. The standard deviation of the stock's returns is 0.1 per year. We compute the values of d

d

d

Next, we find the cumulative normal values associated with d

For a value of 0.65 drawn from the border of the table, we find our probability in the interior: N(d

c = $100 x 0.7422 - $100 x e

p = $100 x e

- The underlying price:
- The exercise price:
- The risk-free rate:
**rho**. Although the model assumes a constant risk-free rate, we can still explore how the option price would differ if the current rate were different.- Large changes in the interest rate have relatively little impact on the option prices. That is, the price of a European option on an asset is not very sensitive to the risk-free rate.
- For a call option, rho (RHOc) is always positive. For a put option, rho (RHOp ) is always negative.
- RHOc and RHOp change as time passes, with both tending toward zero as expiration approaches. The interest rate affects the price of an option in conjunction with the time remaining until expiration mainly through the time value of money. If little time remains until expiration, the interest rate is relatively unimportant, and the price of an option becomes less sensitive to the interest rate.

- Large changes in the interest rate have relatively little impact on the option prices. That is, the price of a European option on an asset is not very sensitive to the risk-free rate.
- Time to expiration:
**Theta**is the negative of the first derivative of the option price with respect to the time remaining until expiration. THETAc and THETAp are generally less than 0.**time decay**. If all parameters remain constant, except the expiration date draws nearer, a call or a put option will have to fall in value, and the theta will be negative. It will be worthless at expiration as S = X. Therefore, a call or a put option will lose its entire value through time decay. - Volatility:
**Vega**is the first derivative of an option's price with respect to the volatility of the underlying stock.- VEGAc and VEGAp are identical and always positive. This means that if the volatility increases, both call and put prices increase.
- Vega tends to be greatest for an option near-the-money. When an option is deep-in-the-money or deep-out-of-the-money, the vega is low and can approach zero.

- VEGAc and VEGAp are identical and always positive. This means that if the volatility increases, both call and put prices increase.

Consider a stock that trades for $75. A call on this stock has an exercise price of $70 and it expires in 150 days. If the continuously compounding interest rate is 7% and the standard deviation for the stock's return is 0.35, compute the price of the call option according to Black-Scholes-Merton model.

Correct Answer: $10.62_{1} = {ln(75/70) + [0.07 + (0.35^{2}/2)] x (150/365)} / (0.35 (150/365)^{1/2}) = 0.5479.

d_{2} = 0.5479 - 0.35 x (150/365)^{1/2} = 0.3235.

N(d_{1}) = N(0.55) = 0.7088.

N(d_{2}) = N(0.32) = 0.6255.

c = $75 x 0.7088 - $70 x e^{-0.07 x (150/365)} x 0.6255 = $10.62.

Below is the relevant part of the cumulative probabilities table for a standard normal distribution.

Correct Answer: $10.62

d

d

N(d

N(d

c = $75 x 0.7088 - $70 x e

Consider a stock that trades for $75. A put on this stock has an exercise price of $70 and it expires in 150 days. If the continuously compounding interest rate is 7% and the standard deviation for the stocks return is 0.35, compute the price of the put option according to Black-Scholes-Merton model.

Correct Answer: $3.63_{1} = {ln(75/70) + [0.07 + (0.35^{2}/2)] x (150/365)} / (0.35 (150/365)^{1/2}) = 0.5479.

d_{2} = 0.5479 - 0.35 x (150/365)^{1/2} = 0.3235.

N(d_{1}) = N(0.55) = 0.7088.

N(d_{2}) = N(0.32) = 0.6255.

p = $70 x e^{-0.07 x (150/365)} x (1 - 0.6255) - $75 x (1 - 0.7088) = $3.63.

Below is the relevant part of the cumulative probabilities table for a standard normal distribution.

Correct Answer: $3.63

d

d

N(d

N(d

p = $70 x e

When an option is near-the-money:

II. VEGA is larger than the VEGA when the option is deep-out-of-the-money.

Correct Answer: I and II

I. VEGA is larger than the VEGA when the option is deep-in-the-money.

II. VEGA is larger than the VEGA when the option is deep-out-of-the-money.

Correct Answer: I and II

For a call option:

II. THETA is generally negative.

III. VEGA is always negative.

Correct Answer: II only

VEGAc and VEGAp are identical and always positive.

I. RHO is always negative.

II. THETA is generally negative.

III. VEGA is always negative.

Correct Answer: II only

For a call option, rho (RHOc) is always positive. For a put option, rho (RHOp ) is always negative.

VEGAc and VEGAp are identical and always positive.

As expiration approaches,

II. RHOp tends to be 0.

III. THETAc will be positive.

IV. THETAp will be negative.

V. VEGAc will be positive.

VI. VEGAp will be positive.

Correct Answer: I, II, IV, V, VI

The theta will be negative as the expiration date draws nearer. Therefore IV is correct.

VEGA is always positive for both calls and puts, so V and VI are correct.

I. RHOc tends to be 0.

II. RHOp tends to be 0.

III. THETAc will be positive.

IV. THETAp will be negative.

V. VEGAc will be positive.

VI. VEGAp will be positive.

Correct Answer: I, II, IV, V, VI

RHOc and RHOp change as time passes, with both tending toward zero as expiration approaches. Therefore I and II are correct.

The theta will be negative as the expiration date draws nearer. Therefore IV is correct.

VEGA is always positive for both calls and puts, so V and VI are correct.

A stock is selling for $69.88. The risk-free rate is 5%.

Put option A: Exercise price X = $70, Days to option expiration = 15.

Put option B: Exercise price X = $70, Days to option expiration = 120.

Call option C: Exercise price X = $70, Days to option expiration = 15.

Call option D: Exercise price X = $70, Days to option expiration = 120._{A} > RHO_{B}.

II. RHO_{A} < RHO_{B}.

III. RHO_{C} > RHO_{D}.

IV. RHO_{C} < RHO_{D}.

Correct Answer: I and IV

Consider the following options on this stock:

Put option A: Exercise price X = $70, Days to option expiration = 15.

Put option B: Exercise price X = $70, Days to option expiration = 120.

Call option C: Exercise price X = $70, Days to option expiration = 15.

Call option D: Exercise price X = $70, Days to option expiration = 120.

Which statement(s) is (are) true?

I. RHO

II. RHO

III. RHO

IV. RHO

Correct Answer: I and IV

For a call option, rho (RHOc) is always positive. For a put option, rho (RHOp ) is always negative. RHOc and RHOp change as time passes, with both tending toward zero as expiration approaches.

A stock sells for $110. A call option on the stock has an exercise price of $105 and expires in 43 days. If the continuously compounding interest rate is 0.11 and the standard deviation of the stock's returns is 0.25, what is the price of the call option according to Black-Scholes-Merton model?

B. 7.82.

C. 8.08.

Correct Answer: B

Below is the relevant part of the cumulative probabilities table for a standard normal distribution.

A. 6.95.

B. 7.82.

C. 8.08.

Correct Answer: B

d_{1} = {ln(110/105) + [0.11 + (0.25^{2}/2)] x (43/365)} / (0.25 (43/365)^{1/2}) = 0.7361.

d_{2} = 0.7361 - 0.25 x (43/365)^{1/2} = 0.6503.

N(d_{1}) = N(0.74) = 0.7704.

N(d_{2}) = N(0.65) = 0.7422.

c = $110 x 0.7704 - $105 x e ^{-0.11 x (43/365)} x 0.7422 = $7.82.

A stock sells for $110. A put option on the stock has an exercise price of $105 and expires in 43 days. If the continuously compounding interest rate is 0.11 and the standard deviation of the stock's returns is 0.25, what is the price of the put option according to Black-Scholes-Merton model?

B. 2.32.

C. 2.78.

Correct Answer: A

Below is the relevant part of the cumulative probabilities table for a standard normal distribution.

A. 1.46.

B. 2.32.

C. 2.78.

Correct Answer: A

d_{1} = {ln(110/105) + [0.11 + (0.25^{2}/2)] x (43/365)} / (0.25 (43/365)^{1/2}) = 0.7361.

d_{2} = 0.7361 - 0.25 x (43/365)^{1/2} = 0.6503.

N(d_{1}) = N(0.74) = 0.7704.

N(d_{2}) = N(0.65) = 0.7422.

p = $105 x e ^{-0.11 x (43/365)} x (1 - 0.7422) - $110 x (1 - 0.7704) = $1.46.

A stock is selling for $69.88. The risk-free rate is 5%.

Call option A: Exercise price X = $70, Days to option expiration = 120.

Call option B: Exercise price X = $75, Days to option expiration = 120._{A} > VEGA_{B}.

II. VEGA_{A} < VEGA_{B}.

III. GAMMA_{A} > GAMMA_{B}.

IV. GAMMA_{A} < GAMMA_{B}.

B. II and III

C. I and IV

Correct Answer: A

Consider the following call options on this stock:

Call option A: Exercise price X = $70, Days to option expiration = 120.

Call option B: Exercise price X = $75, Days to option expiration = 120.

Which statement(s) is (are) true?

I. VEGA

II. VEGA

III. GAMMA

IV. GAMMA

A. I and III

B. II and III

C. I and IV

Correct Answer: A

Note that option A is near-the-money. Vega tends to be greatest for an option near-the-money so I is correct.

Gamma is large when the option is near-the-money so III is correct.

______ measures the change of option price with respect to the time remaining until expiration.

B. RHO.

C. GAMMA.

Correct Answer: A

A. THETA.

B. RHO.

C. GAMMA.

Correct Answer: A

Theta is the negative of the first derivative of the option price with respect to the time remaining until expiration.

According to the Black-Scholes option valuation formula, which of the following outcomes is likely as a result of an increase in the price volatility of an underlying asset?

B. Only the call premium will increase while the put premium will decrease.

C. Only the out premium will increase while the call premium will decrease.

Correct Answer: A

A. The premium of both a call option and a put option will increase.

B. Only the call premium will increase while the put premium will decrease.

C. Only the out premium will increase while the call premium will decrease.

Correct Answer: A

The greater the volatility of the underlying asset, the more valuable will be option, whether it be a call or a put. Options are rights, meaning that the holder will only exercise if the market moves in her favor. Therefore, the greater the volatility, the more the markets could move in the favor of the option holder. Should the market move against the option holder's favor, the most that could be lost is the premium paid for the option.

Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to valuing contracts?

II. For a call to be at the money, its intrinsic value must be greater than zero.

III. Due to the efficiency of the option's markets, the actual price of the option is usually equal to its intrinsic value.

IV. For a put contract to be out of the money, the actual price of the underlying asset must be greater than the strike price of the option.

B. I and IV

C. II, III, and IV

Correct Answer: B

I. The time value of both a call and a put will decrease as the contracts near expiration.

II. For a call to be at the money, its intrinsic value must be greater than zero.

III. Due to the efficiency of the option's markets, the actual price of the option is usually equal to its intrinsic value.

IV. For a put contract to be out of the money, the actual price of the underlying asset must be greater than the strike price of the option.

A. I, II, and III

B. I and IV

C. II, III, and IV

Correct Answer: B

II is incorrect because for a call to be at the money, its intrinsic value must also be equal to zero.

III is incorrect because even though the option markets are extremely efficient, the actual price of the option contracts is equal to the sum of the option's intrinsic value and its time value. Only on the expiration date will the actual price of the option be equal to its intrinsic value.

Which of the following is(are) true with respect to option Vegas?

II. Vega for a call option is at its highest when the call is at-the-money.

III. For call options and put options that share the same parameters, their Vegas will be the same.

B. II and III

C. I, II and IV

Correct Answer: B

I. As the volatility of the underlying asset increases, a call option will increase in value while a put option will decrease in value.

II. Vega for a call option is at its highest when the call is at-the-money.

III. For call options and put options that share the same parameters, their Vegas will be the same.

IV. Vega for a put option increases as the option move deeper out-of-the-money.

A. II and IV

B. II and III

C. I, II and IV

Correct Answer: B

I is incorrect because as the volatility of the underlying asset increases, both a call option and a put option will increase in value.

IV is incorrect because the Vega of a put is the exact the same as that of a call with the same parameter. In both cases, Vega is at its highest when the option is at-the-money.