AuthorTopic: diluted eps
Claudio
@2012-03-06 01:06:00
given R.E. of 100,000,
5,000 shares of common with a par value of \$20,
1,000 shares of 10% cumul. pref. stock with a par of \$100 and a liquidation value of \$110.
The preferred is 4 years in arrears (no idea how this affects anything)
what is Book value per share? (which i assume means diluted eps) - thanks.
By the way, the choices are \$25, \$30, \$32, and \$33 -- answer is 30
applebee
@2012-03-12 06:55:00
Dividends have to be paid to the pref.s:

5x 10%x 1000x100 = 50,000 ( 5 years-- 4 years in arrear plus current year)

After div. paid out, remaining R.E is 50,000, distributed to 5000 shares common stocks, which means \$10 per share.

\$10 ( R.E. available per share) + \$20 (par value) = \$30 ( book value)

Here is just my thought. Please correct me if it is wrong.
Piuu
@2012-05-05 20:10:08
How did u get 5 in 5*10%*1000*100. there is no such no mentioned.
Sandar
@2012-05-12 13:40:05
Shouldn't it be =retained earning pr share + common stock per share = (1000 shares* 100*0.1/1000)+20=30