AuthorTopic: Indifference curves
michlam14
@2014-12-22 20:11:21
hi guys

can't seem to get my head around this. in terms of risk aversion, +ve means risk adverse, -ve is a risk taker and 0 is risk neutral. I tried to look at the slope of the indifference curve using the utility formula. given the above, isn't the curve of the risk taker negatively sloping, and not upward slpoing?

mich

CFA Discussion Topic: Indifference curves

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