### CFA Practice Question

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### CFA Practice Question

Consider a European payer swaption that expires in two years and is on a one-year swap that will make quarterly payments. The swaption has an exercise rate of 6.5%. The notional principal is \$100 million. At expiration, the term structure of interest rates is as follows:
L0(90) = 0.0373; L0(180) = 0.0429; L0(270) = 0.0477; L0(360) = 0.0538.

What is the market value of the swaption at expiration?
A. \$0
B. \$1.2 million
C. \$1.5 million
Explanation: First we compute the present value discount factors:
B0(90) = 1 / (1 + 0.0373 (90/360)) = 0.9908
B0(180) = 1 / (1 + 0.0429 (180/360)) = 0.9790
B0(270) = 1 / (1 + 0.0477 (270/360)) = 0.9655
B0(360) = 1 / (1 + 0.0538 (360/360)) = 0.9489

The fixed rate should be: 1/(90/360) x (1 - 0.9489) / (0.9908 + 0.9790 + 0.9655 + 0.9489) = 0.0528

The market value of the receiver swaption at expiration is Max {0, [0.0528 x (90/360) - 0.065 x (90/360)] x (0.9908 + 0.9790 + 0.9655 + 0.9489)} = 0.