CFA Practice Question

There are 361 practice questions for this study session.

Which of the following are forms of plagiarism?

I. Citing quotations said to be attributable to "leading analysts" or "investment experts" without specific reference
II. Presenting statistical forecasts by others with the sources identified but without the qualifying statements that may have been used by the originator
III. Using factual information published by a recognized financial statistics reporting service without acknowledgment
IV. Making a verbal comment at a meeting with associates giving the impression that analysis is original when in reality it is attributable to another analyst
Correct Answer: I, II and IV

User Contributed Comments 18

You need to log in first to add your comment.
kalps

Note, that II is plagerism because you have not given a clear view of teh individuals analysis as you have missed out his underlying assumptions which do not reflect his model yet you have quoted him as the originator

AshVini

ya II needs to be paid attention. i thought it was not an act of plagiarism.

bloctrader

II is questionable. It's not plagerism per se; it's distorting the truth.

financeprof

I agree with bloctrader. This would not be plagerism, rather it would be misrepresentation. I think there is an important difference.

mtcfa

II is not plagiarism by definition, but nonetheless a violation of 1C. Moreover, per the updated standards, this concept is included as a form of plagiarism. Thus: I, II, and IV are correct.

DAS11

II is plagiarism since it is a statistical FORECAST by another analyst

Slothrop

Even if II is a statistical forecast, you've identified its source, therefore it is only plagiarism because you've omitted the qualifying statements.

teddajr

Is it as per the updated standards, that missing the qualifying statements is also plagiarism? Any pg# references shall be appreciated.

TammTamm

II??? I guess he should have put their quotes in there also.

rrichmondo

What if the quotations were fictitious ?

dblueroom

It's more like omitting something important - a misrepresentation.

auhjpps

We too thought II is misrepresentation, I guess whatever answer CFA likes is the right one???

loisliu88

II is a bit confusing. if it changed to "...without qualifying the statement and analysis that have been used by the originator", then it should be considered plagerism.because you just copied other's work without making any effort to prove it.

dtiwari

II seems really confusing.Exclusion of qualifying statement give a sense of not trying to attribute.

Raok

II is still plagarize because first its statsical data (might not be true) and second without informing the originator (copy)

gill15

You guys are thinking too hard. It's whatever CFA has in there standards of practice handbook and that correct. Stop trying to think logically.

michlam14

sometimes there are overlap on the standards.. need to refer to the textbook

bbadger

2 isn't plagiarism, it's diligence and reasonable basis. On the test I'm answering 1 and 4. And it's "their" not "there", gill.