### CFA Practice Question

There are 520 practice questions for this study session.

### CFA Practice Question

At the end of 2015, a firm changes its depreciation method from the double-declining balance method to the straight-line method. The firm only has one asset, a building that cost \$4,000,000 and has a salvage value of \$200,000 after a life of 20 years. The tax rate is 20%. The asset was purchased in January of 2013. What will be the effect of the change on 2015 net income resulting from 2013 and 2014?
A. \$440,000 increase
B. \$380,000 increase
C. \$304,000 increase
Explanation: The effect on income will be the change in depreciation expense this year and the cumulative effect of the change on prior years. The straight-line depreciation for two years is \$380,000 (2 x \$190,000) and the double-declining depreciation for two years is \$760,000 (\$400,000 + \$360,000). The cumulative effect before taxes would be \$380,000 (\$760,000 - \$380,000). After the taxes, the effect on the income of 2015 resulting from the change in 2013 and 2014 depreciation is a \$304,000 increase, resulting from the change from a method with larger depreciation expense to a method with smaller depreciation expense.

User Comment
annex I thought it dosen't allow the method to be changed for old assets? though I got the answer right if the change is permissible.
danlan Should consider the tax effect,thus we get 380000*(1-20%)=304000
LIEJON Can anyone explain how we get 360.000 in the second year for the accel. method? Why not 400.000 again?
LordHux (4000k - 400k)*(2/20), I think this is it
Saibot If you have TI BA PLus 2, it does it for you:
press 2nd depr, then select the method by pressing 2nd + enter - go to DB. = 200 should already be given ( double declining).
then enter 4 Mio for CST and 20 for LIF. then you already see 400 K under DEP. then go to YR and press CPT , it ll show the next year, and so on...
bani007 The change in the method of depreciation should be applied prospectively not retrospectively
Hishy I thought a change in depreciation method is simply a change in accounting estimate and therefore requires no restatement?
Hishy @LIEJON - DDB is a constant percentage of depn every year, but the actual amount of depn changes every year. DDB also ignores salvage value. So 2/20 = 10%.
Year 1 = 4m * 40% = 400,000
Year 2 = (4m-400k)*40% = 360,000