CFA Practice Question

There are 481 practice questions for this topic.

CFA Practice Question

Which of the following is NOT correct? (Note: tc is the marginal tax rate.)

A. The WACC is equal to the firm's embedded debt cost multiplied by (1 - tc).
B. The WACC requires the cost of debt be decreased by tc.
C. The WACC is not directly observable in financial markets.
D. The WACC is the required return on any investments a firm makes that have a level of risk equal to that of present operations.
E. The WACC represents the risk and target capital structure of a firm's existing assets as a whole.
Correct Answer: A

User Contributed Comments 9

User Comment
rockeR Can someone explain why answer C is correct?
haarlemmer WACC is a combined rate.
bahodir C is correct, because WACC is a company specific rate, which is not directly observable in financial markets.
thekapila well it can be observed in financial markets... As said the WACC if not known can be calculated as market value of firms debt and equity which can very well observed in market.
tschorsch C is correct because WACC cannot always be calculated. Debt (including bank loans) may have been issued which in not on the market and thus the actual terms of this debt may not be available, i.e. they must be estimated.
dipu617 Why A is not correct??!!
bantoo It tells partial truth and talks nothing about cost of equity.
gulfa99 WACC is not equal to embedded debt cost. WACC is the weighted average cost of Preferred, Debt + Equity. While calculating WACC you can reduce the taxable rate from debt cost and not from equity and preferred.
quanttrader + cost of equity
You need to log in first to add your comment.