- CFA Exams
- CFA Level I Exam
- Topic 6. Fixed Income
- Learning Module 45. Introduction to Asset-Backed Securities
- Subject 8. Collateralized Debt Obligations
CFA Practice Question
Consider the following CDO transaction:
- The CDO is a $100 million structure.
- The collateral consists of bonds that all mature in five years. The coupon rate of these bonds is the five-year T-bond rate plus 400 basis points.
- The senior tranche is 70% of the deal. It pays a floating rate of LIBOR + 100 basis points.
- There is only one junior tranche of $20 million with a coupon rate of the five-year T-bond rate + 400 basis points.
- The asset manager enters into a swap in which it pays a fixed rate equal to the five-year T-bond rate + 100 basis points and receives LIBOR. The notional amount of the swap is $70 million.
- Assume that there is no default or asset management fee. All payments are made annually each year for simplicity.
If the five-year T-rate at the time the CDO is issued is 6%, what is the expected return on investment for the equity tranche?
A. 20%
B. 24%
C. 28%
Explanation: The equity tranche is $100 - $100 x 0.7 - 20 = $10 million
Each year:
- The collateral will pay interest of $100 x (6% + 4%) = $10 million to the CDO.
- The CDO pays $70 x (6% + 1%) = $4.9 million to the counterparty of the swap, and receives $70 x LIBOR.
- Interest to senior tranche: $70 x (LIBOR + 1%)
- Interest to junior tranche: $20 x (6% + 4%) = $2
Return on investment = 2.4/10 = 24%
User Contributed Comments 4
User | Comment |
---|---|
MSRus | what is 0,7? from what source it's comming? |
Allen88 | Where it says: Interest to senior tranche, the $70 is multiplied to 1% to get 0.7. |
Paulvw | Must remember to include swap cash flows! |
milica818 | Can someone please explain where the - 0.7m is coming from when netting interest received/paid? I don't get it |