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**CFA Practice Question**

A company with a 10-year bond issue of 7% coupon, paid annually, face value 10,000,000, sold at a market yield of 6.8%, will report

A. a discount of 141,780 and a CFF of 10,000,000.

B. a premium of 141,780 and a CFF of 10,141,780.

C. a premium of 141,780 and a CFF of 10,000,000.

**Explanation:**The present value of the bond issue is: PMT = 700,000; N = 10; I/Y = 6.8; FV = 10,000,000; CPT PV = 10,141,780.

This represents a premium over the face value: Premium = 10,141,780 - 10,000,000 = 141,780.

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**User Contributed Comments**
5

User |
Comment |
---|---|

PedroEdmundo |
CFF is equal to the proceeds and the proceed is the present value not the face value. At the maturity date u decreased the CFF by the Face value. |

ontrack |
this can be solved visually! Since coupon rate is > yield, it has to be a premium bond (elimates choices A and D). Next, since it is a premium bond, CFF will be greater than face value=> option B. Impressed? |

zkhan87 |
no |

tommyguard3 |
Thank's Pedro, I had the 141,780 premium but didn't understand the CFF but that makes sens. |

Ifi2703 |
Remember, CFF is the actual physical cash that came in after you sold your bonds - since you sold at a premium the cash that came in would obviously be bigger than the face value so the clear answer would be B. |