### CFA Practice Question

There are 423 practice questions for this topic.

### CFA Practice Question

Southern Company holds a 10-year bond that it purchased 4 years ago at 1020 and records as held-to-maturity. It receives \$40 in cash interest payments. The premium it recorded at acquisition is amortized on a straight-line basis. How much interest income will it report?
A. \$40
B. \$42
C. \$38
Explanation: Interest income for held-to-maturity is equal to interest payments received plus (less) the amortization of discount (premium). The 2% premium on the purchase price is a "cost" that results in the recognition of less interest income as it is amortized over a 10-year period. Interest income for the period is \$40 - \$2 = \$38.

### User Contributed Comments7

User Comment
turtle Premium of 2 should be amortised through 10 years. So amount deducted for 1 year is 0,2 not 2. Correct me if I am wrong.
ragingrazz I think they are assuming standard Bond face value of \$1,000, which is common. So, premium = \$1,000*1.02= \$20. \$20/10 years = \$2/yr.
anricus28 Question asked how much interest is reported (not in one year) therefore I assume over the whole period. And so answer is 40-2
ljuricek I do not think the whole period should be included. (Answer says "Interest income for THE PERIOD ..." I would tend to believe that information on face value being 1000 is missing in the text question.
C2inOC I suppose that the face being \$1000 is implied by the \$40 interest, because if it was a \$100 face bond...then that would mean it was a 40% coupon. And who has a 40% coupon?
mchu I would agree with ragingrazz
davcer should the price be 980 instead of 1000 we would have to add the discount to have a total of 42