### CFA Practice Question

There are 432 practice questions for this topic.

### CFA Practice Question

Tom and Erdal are planning on forming the Top-Torque Company. The company is to specialize in diesel engine rebuilding for extractive industries. The investment cost is expected to be \$1.5 million and have after-tax cash flows of \$100,000 in year 1, \$250,000 in year 2, and \$300,000 thereafter indefinitely. The two owners estimate that this is a risky venture and requires a 17% rate of return. What is the value of Top-Torque, and should the investment be made?

A. \$57,240; yes
B. \$1,557,240; yes
C. -\$57,240; no

NPV = -1,500,000 + 100,000/1.17 + 250,000/1.172 + (300,000/.17)/1.172 = -1,500,000 + 1,557,240.04 = \$57,240.04

User Comment
zhaojiang NPV = -1,500,000 + 100,000/1.17 + 250,000/(1.17)(1.17) + (300,000/0.17)/(1.17)(1.17)
kunam if 300,000 is in year 3, doesn't need to be discounted for 3 years by 1.17?
synner yeah, i think zhaojiang's right
RealEduardo To review in the calculator how to calculate the indefinitely cash flows.
haarlemmer Hey, if the answers are like these in the exam, the answer is easy to be found out. hehe.
cwrolfe Kunam, regarding 3 yr discount...the PV AT YEAR ZERO WITH FIRST PAYMENT AT T=1 of a perpetuity is the annuity pymt. divided by the int. rate. So if you back up from t=3 to t=2 in this problem to calc the pv of the perpetuity with its first payment at t=3, you've effectively already discounted one period and therefore only need discount that PV two more periods.
ashok1959 can any one tell me how to calculate NPV for indefinit cashflow in BA II plus for this question.
thekapila indefinately cash flow = perpetuity = CF/R = 300,000/.17
Now with TVM this value is at end of year 2 so PV of this start of year 1 = pepetuity/1.17*1.17
julescruis Thanks for your explanations, I first dicounted the 1,7 million for three periods instead of two. Making so many mistakes, damn...
hannovanwyk You cant go wrong with a time line! works for me every time!
clafleur you can use the CF function on the BAII, make cf1=100,000 F01=1, cf2=250,000 F02=1, then make cf3=3000 F03=1000, this will effectively make the last CF a perpetuity
joantym thanks clafleur for the guide on how to use the BAII...
mavend Does anyone know how to calculate it in hp12c?
Beret See example 15 (p. 196 Vol. 1) of the curriculum for a perpetuity starting in the future.
fedha Good question
miiyeung Wow, thanks clafleur!

BAII:

cf0= -1500,000
cf1= 100,000 F01=1,
cf2= 250,000 F02=1,
cf3=3 00,000 F03=1000

FO3 is the frequency of the cash inflow; the amount occurs as a perpetuity and so will count the next 1000 years.
DonAnd clafleur you are my hero...way to go! I hope I remember that when under pressure in the exam. Thank you!
bantoo I did not not understand the solution. Can anybody explain it in detailed concept. I will be grateful.
erinelize I did the same thing as clafleur and only used 100 for F03 and still got the same answer..so as long as you choose a big enough number it's treated the same as a perpetuity. Probably best to use 1000 just to be safe :)
Cozma Perpetuity...
tawastar CFo = -1,500,000
C01 = 100,000
C02 =(300,000/.17)+250,000 = 2,014,705.88

I = 17 CPT NPV...57,240.03
SergoUA tawastar, thank you. This is the very quick calculation
moneyguy Very good tips with the BAII, everybody. The perpetuity calculation with 1000 for F03 is great!
johntan1979 Or if you want to be safe, just in case the answers are very close (not rounded), you can just use 2000 years, since the world's oldest companies has been around for only 1851 years (e.g. Reuters, Western Union) as of 2012.
long2012 BA II Plus can use Frequency until 9,999. So for the actual answer you can use F03=9,999.
jonan203 mavend:

1,500,000 <chs><g><CFo>
100,000 <g><CFj>
300,000 <enter>
.17 <divide>
250,000 <plus><g><CFj>
2 <n>
17 <i><f><NPV> = \$57,240